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Hi, I've a simple question about home sales. I was just
kind of wondering if my sister (whom I love, but is not always
truthful with me) actually bought her own home back in 1982.
I remember when she sold it roughly 5 years later, she required
the signature of my parents. That's all I know, and I only know
that because I saw her putting up a fuss trying to get my parents
to sign--which they did after just a tiny fuss lasting maybe
only 5 minutes.
This all happened in St. Louis, Missouri back in the '80's.
Many years later when I asked my sister about it, she said our
parents' signature was required before she could sell the home
because our parents were co-signors on the mortgage.
This sounded reasonable to me for quite a few years, but
now as I re-think the matter, I am beginning to wonder if my
sister's name was actually on the home's title or, instead, if it
was my parents' names on the title.
If my sister was indeed the the owner (meaning her name
was on the home's title), would she really require our parents'
signatures to sell the home, even if our parents were co-signors?
Just kind of wondering.
Well, many thanks for any answers.
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